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| Analogical vs Univocal?; Epistemology | |
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| Topic Started: Feb 1 2012, 06:16 AM (468 Views) | |
| Damian | Feb 1 2012, 06:16 AM Post #1 |
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Wears Skinny Jeans
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In regards to an analogical relation; does not analogy imply there is a point of equivocation in the relation? |
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| Ray Nearhood | Feb 13 2012, 09:28 AM Post #11 |
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THE Bald Assertion
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I have, and the best I could find from Frame on this (having never read Frame's book on Van Til) is this:
And, yet, that just hasn't sat right with me. Instead, I think that they had a real disagreement over a real difference in epistemology. Now, if'n I could just understand what that issue is.... |
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| Ray Nearhood | Feb 13 2012, 10:41 AM Post #12 |
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THE Bald Assertion
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Apparently, I really don't understand, because I seem to be conflating a bit of Aquinas' "analogical reasoning" with Van Til's. (?) From Frame's Van Til Glossary: Analogy, analogical reasoning: (1) (Aquinas) Thinking in language that is neither literally true (univocal), nor unrelated to the subject matter (equivocal), but which bears a genuine resemblance to that subject-matter. (2) (VT) Thinking in subjection to God's revelation and therefore thinking God's thoughts after him. Edit: Assuming Frame is defining these both correctly and intelligibly. Edited by Ray Nearhood, Feb 13 2012, 10:42 AM.
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| Ray Nearhood | Feb 13 2012, 11:54 AM Post #13 |
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THE Bald Assertion
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Here, this makes it as clear at the Chatahoochie (which isn't clear... at all).... No really, this was helpful: (Note: Formatting didn't come out great. Damien, I know this isn't quite what you asked, but, I need to understand it better myself in order to figure out what Van Til was saying in order to even have an idea about how Van Til's use of "analogy" was different than Aquinas'...not just that it is different). SOURCE
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| Damian | Feb 13 2012, 04:10 PM Post #14 |
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Wears Skinny Jeans
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Thanks for the thoughts Ray. I have some thoughts but I'm at work so it'll have to wait :-) Damian |
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| Damian | Feb 13 2012, 04:22 PM Post #15 |
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Wears Skinny Jeans
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Very quickly while there's a lull in reference questions... Yes, Clark taught that there is a quantitative but not qualitative distinction between God's knowledge and man's knowledge. That is, the difference in knowledge is one of degree, not kind. VanTil and some other professors at Westminster disagreed. They denied that there is a univocal point at which God's knowledge meets man's knowledge. However, the General Assembly of the Orthodox Presbyterian Church sided in favor of Dr. Clark. Also, (and I just briefly ran over some of your posts so forgive me if you already mentioned this...) I would put Van Til's concept of analogical knowledge very close to St. Thomas (much closer than most Van Tillians are willing to admit) and if taken to its logical conclusion leads to skepticism. In a word, an analogy of truth is not the truth. Edited by Damian, Feb 13 2012, 04:29 PM.
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| Pastoral Musings | Feb 13 2012, 04:35 PM Post #16 |
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Fundy
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I'll have to say that I cannot go with Van Til on that one. I also don't know that there's much reason for such an argument in apologetics or in theology. I dunno...it's beyond me. |
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| Ray Nearhood | Feb 13 2012, 05:06 PM Post #17 |
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THE Bald Assertion
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I did say that... actually, what I did while trying to explain Van Til's "analogical knowledge" to my satisfaction it came out sounding like a blend of Aquinas and not-Aquinas. So, there is that. The only thing that I can think that would separate Van Til's out from Aquinas' is how, I think, he thinks out the Creator-creature distinction. That is, he makes not only the ontological distinction (which would make the creature's knowledge lower than the Creator's) but also understands that the Creator is the source of the creature's thoughts. I dunno... what does that mean? That (using the qualitative and quantitative language) man's are thoughts necessarily less (qualitatively) than God's, but the same truth... that is (using Frame's short explanation of Aquinas' "analogical thought") that truth as man knows it does not "bear a genuine resemblance" to truth as God knows it, but is instead the same truth, though qualitatively less? It makes me wonder, following Clark's thought on propositions and applying it to Van Til's epistemology, what is it about two and two makes four that we can't understand? [[As creatures, we understand numbers as absolute and abstract, yes? (edited for clarity)]] But, are numbers, absolute and abstract as they are, understood differently by the Creator? Do they have a Creator/creature relationship (similar to ours but different) to God - and God, thus, has an exhaustive knowledge of "2" and "4" that we can not hope to have? Assuming that that is the case, does 2 and 2 makes 4 become less coherent? Edited by Ray Nearhood, Feb 13 2012, 06:23 PM.
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| Damian | Feb 14 2012, 05:54 AM Post #18 |
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Wears Skinny Jeans
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Please forgive me for the following rambles! The question I have for VanTil is how does God communicate facts to his creatures? As I understand it He cannot really communicate it because omniscience is not a communicable attribute. There is an epistemological chasm fixed between knowledge belonging to God alone and ignorance which is the fate of the creature. Gerstner points out that this is because of VanTil's analogical thinking which is based on "the false idealistic suppostion, namely, that brute facts are mute facts..." In other words, we cannot know a flower without knowing the whole world (which is rather insane if you ask me). So it doesn't matter if the knowledge is communicated analogically or not, VanTil still runs afoul of his own supposition - one must know everything to know something! And to know everything, God would have to make us infinite, which he can't do because that would be a meaningless statement since by definition we are creatures. The problem here, I think, is (and Ray touched on this) the absolute demarcation between Creator and creature. VanTil overplays this distinction to the point of near Barthian proportions! Now I'm not going to defend univocal points of contact between Creator and the creature in this post, except to say, if there is no univocatism, there is no knowledge at all. If God is "wholly other" then He is the empty void, utter darkness, we would have no concept of "god" at all (Lossky comes close to this when he says that God is complete darkness - but the Apostle John tells us that God is light and in Him there is no darkness at all.) If we assume such complete ontological distinctness of God, then He is strictly unknowable. Nothing can be predicated of Him, no true statements can be made, for all propositions require a distinction between subject and predicate. Knowledge also requires the distinction between the person knowing and the object known. So what are we left with? Plotinus's "One". And that is I think what is driving VanTil - Neo-platonic notions, reinforced by the likes of Kant. |
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| mem | Feb 27 2012, 08:13 AM Post #19 |
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Infections: I gots em
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So I wanted to ping this thread again. I started Aristotle's Organen as the basic start for some of these things, and he seems to be the source of significant vocabulary. I'm wondering if there's a reasonable glossary or layman's dictionary for some of the more common terms associated with his work. I don't know that the reading in particular is dense or if the problem (more likely) exists between the chair and keyboard. In particular, he talks about equivocal naming, univocal naming, and derivative naming, and while I can apply some of this to past experiences (e.g., in computer science—which is just all this stuff applied), I'm trying to make sure that I'm not making up a definition that "fits." |
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4:32 AM May 18